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    Many Worlds Tautological Truth: To Be Or Not To Be Is Not The Question
    By Sascha Vongehr | December 4th 2011 10:58 PM | 26 comments | Print | E-mail | Track Comments
    About Sascha

    Dr. Sascha Vongehr [风洒沙] studied phil/math/chem/phys in Germany, obtained a BSc in theoretical physics (electro-mag) & MSc (stringtheory)...

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    Susskind and other usual suspects try hard to convince the world that they are the ones who finally understood Many Worlds and that such is a success of string theory and all that. A media spectacle is going on full speed right now, see here at the New Scientist’s “Ultimate Guide to the Multiverse”, Brian Greene chipping in with the Multiverse episode of the “Fabric of the Cosmos” series on PBS, and many others. Wikipedia regurgitates:

    "MWI [many worlds] is one of many multiverse hypotheses in physics".


    Some like Lee Smolin and Peter Woit claim to criticize, but apparently were also successfully made to believe that Many Worlds is part of Tegmark/Susskind personality cult and string theory hype. It is high time to demystify Many Worlds; not what they made you think it means, but what Many Worlds are.


    Agnostics expect a Multiverse” clarified an important distinction: Many Worlds and Multiverses are not the same. Different forms of Multiverses may or may not belong to possible consistent descriptions of for instance cosmology, but “Many Worlds” correctly understood are true, much like one plus one equals two is true since two is defined that way. Lets explain “Many Worlds”, especially what they are (1), that they do not equal quantum physics (2), and why such is tautologically true, including why those who demand that the concept needs empirical verification do not understand scientific verification properly (3).


    Tegmark’s almost directly realistic four level Multiverse seeks to include Many Worlds as the third level which “adds nothing new” to the second level – an obvious and fatal problem with this scheme!


    1) “Many Worlds”, What Are They?

    “World” in the Many Worlds context means a world of observers (interacting systems), not a cosmos or “universe” inside a certain model of the physical world. This is not how Immanuel Kant used the word “world”. Nevertheless, if “Many Worlds” are mentioned especially in the context of modern physics, the worlds are those that are observed by the observers “in” those worlds. These worlds must not be confused with “universe” or “cosmos”. The phrase “Many Worlds” came historically along with so called “Everett branches”, but we do not need to concern us with quantum physics (see below).


    Different universes being described inside one description constitute a “Multiverse”. If existent, it is included in Many Worlds. Many Worlds is not included in every Multiverse model, but all possible Multiverses are intrinsic in Many Worlds, because Many Worlds is about all that is self-consistently possible. Susskind, Tegmark, Greene etc. like to confuse this (I am not sure how far Bousso commits this mistake – he seems to be further along, so is Rovelli).


    A Many Worlds description is one that includes other possible worlds, also those that are not actualized for you right now, the counter factual ones, for example the possible worlds where you wear different clothes while reading this right now.



    A truly fundamental description aims to take account of the whole of totality, of all that is self-consistently possible. If you refused Many Worlds in such a description, you would assume that in the very foundation of totality, the very most fundamental laws of nature, intrinsic to the absolute rock bottom core of physics in its most profound and general symmetries, there is something inside that ensures that you, yes you personally with name and address, wear those particular clothes today!


    In the most fundamental description, all self-consistent possibilities are equivalent. Even if you assume non-quantum physics and a universe where all future was already determined by initial conditions, the ultimate description treats all self-consistently possible initial conditions equivalently. If gods blew holy dust only into one set of initial conditions, the most fundamental description will still include all the worlds where they fancied different sets. All self-consistently possible gods want you to wear those smelly socks today? Really, that is a hypothesis worth considering? No, it isn’t!


    2) Many Worlds is Not Quantum Physics

    Many Worlds are not quantum physics. Quantum physics is not the foundation of Many Worlds. Many Worlds is in some sense the foundation of quantum physics! In general, physics is not the source of self-consistency; self-consistency is at the core of mathematics and thus possible physics.


    Quantum physics merely describes the way in which worlds are entangled with each other. Such mutual interference implies that your actualized world cannot be fully described without including other worlds. Entanglement allowed experimental evidence about the other worlds, for example via Elitzur-Vaidman bomb testing type experiments.


    Elitzur-Vaidman bomb testing is evidence for entanglement with counter factual worlds.


    HOWEVER!!! It is extremely important here to keep in mind that interference is not empirical evidence needed for Many Worlds! It is support for quantum Many Worlds. This evidence supports for example the so called Many World Interpretations (MWI) of quantum physics. The models under the MWI label, like this simple model that resolves the Einstein-Podolsky-Rosen paradox, have probabilities that cannot be normalized. They all suffer from a frequentist probability concept and the so called “measure problem”, which is the arguably most important problem in cosmology and quantum physics today.


    Many Worlds as such do not gain much from this evidence, because they are in the fundamental description no matter what. Without quantum mechanics, other self-consistent worlds are just classical parallel worlds that never interfere, but they are still Many Worlds.


    3) Do Many Worlds Exist? Do we Need to Verify their Existence?

    Now to the aspect that few are able to grasp. Lee Smolin has big problems with this – in fact, I have yet to see a physicist who fully gets it. Maybe Bousso/Rovelli come closest, but I am not sure how far.


    It is fashionable to quote Popper and demand that something that cannot be falsified should not enter science. Lets first forget Popper, who is about as insightful as Hilarious Putnam. Such writers confuse with nonsensical terminology and demand others to admit “meaning” to stuff that cannot be verified. Of course nonsensical terminology can come up with any desired amount of distinctions that make no verifiable difference. People like Wittgenstein and Ayer understood much better what verification is all about: It starts with terminology!


    The problem with the question “Do not-actualized counter-factual worlds exist?” is that it is not asking for the “existence” of anything, but instead for the definition of “exist”. Academics turn this into sophistry about so-and-so’s “ontological commitment toward modal reality”. If you want progress however, you must consider the following:


    If “exist” includes other possibilities, you cannot make the distinction between the modal categories “necessary”, “exist”, and “possible” anymore. All necessary does exist. All that is existent is possible. If you turn back on this terminology via “everything possible actually exists” (the so called “Principle of Plenitude of actualization”), everything becomes necessary and the whole terminology crashes!


    Vegetable and fruit are distinct because we want to make distinctions. Only through such distinctions can we even express that tomatoes are perhaps wrongly classified. Only after such distinctions can we have the “holistic revelation” that fruit and vegetables are basically the same.


    So you cannot start with “Please verify existence of other possible worlds!” You must start with a definition of “exist” that provides a verifiable distinction (in Ayer’s words “significant meaning”) between “possible” and “exist”. If you have not, your later aches about that everything possible exists are self-inflicted.



    Once more in other words: Your world is actualized for you now. Other worlds are actualized relative for the observers who observe those other worlds, the other possible “yous”. Now you ask, “But do those worlds actually exist?” This means something like “Are those worlds really actualized?” It asks “Are they actually actual?” (actually actual - see the problem yet???) It asks for something like an absolute actualization that is different from relative actualization for observers. It claims a distinction that makes no verifiable difference! If you cannot tell me how I am supposed to distinguish “absolute actualized” from “relative actualized” (by verifiable means!), I will not waste time trying to prove that other worlds are actually absolutely actualized rather than “merely possible”.


    Now you may think that this is unfair because the distinction I want you to verify first is exactly the distinction that you wanted me to verify at first, but here it is that I exclaim: Precisely! That is why Many Worlds are tautologically true even although current Many Worlds Interpretations of quantum mechanics have the measure problem and often assume unobservable universal states (the wave function of the universe). I know better than most that MWI are not the last word, but Many Worlds are still true.


    Those who demand to verify Many Worlds think themselves better scientists who responsibly care about verification, but like with so many issues, say freedom and democracy, those who shove it down other’s throats seldom understand half of it. Verification starts well before one can ask questions.


    Do Many Worlds exist? It depends on how you like to use “exist”. Any truly fundamental description of physics must include Many Worlds, period. We can discuss whether “world” is too misleading and should be replaced by “Mind”, as in Many Minds, which is a good point. But “I don’t like Many Worlds and they should get back to what can be verified by experiment” regresses to a naïve, pre-philosophical, unenlightened engineering kind of scientism mindset that has no chance to shine any light on the next steps in fundamental science.

    --------------------------------------------

    Remark to philosophers: Not mentioning modal realism may seem a harsh omission, however, physics audiences do not know modal realism much and it may mislead, because modal realism is about modal logic (terminology), yet a wider audience may misinterpret the name to mean that such philosophy is all about whether or not stuff is "really real".

    --------------------------------------------

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    Comments

    Hfarmer
    Reading and having thought about this for a while it seems more like you are talking not about "worlds" or universes but possibilities or histories.
    You and I both know that modern physics at a very fundamental level incorporates the notion of a sum over all possible histories into it's most well tested theories.  (Namely the actual use of the standard model to compute cross sections.)  So in a sense the notion of "many worlds" you described is not just tautologically true but has been proven by countless experiments.

    The problem you are having is a disconnect with your largely United States of America based audience.  We have been bombarded with the notion of "many worlds" as being equal to "multiverse" by our popular culture as well as the way that science doccumentaries tell us.   The notion is often discussed as being connected at the hip with that of extra dimensions

    When we in the USA say "many worlds" what we have in mind is more like.... the many many possible M-branes of M theory.  Each M-brane being a separate plane separated by one of those extra dimensions from our universe.   Extra dimensions is a separate concept from that of "many worlds and does need to be verified and tested. (Emphasized for the sake of your audience.) 

    In short I concur with you about the concept of "many worlds" as you described it. More over I offer that it has been incorporated into modern physics already and passed physical test.  Extra dimensions hasn't done that yet. 
    Science advances as much by mistakes as by plans.
    vongehr
    you are talking not about "worlds" or universes but possibilities or histories.
    I am talking about worlds, not histories, simply because histories include other times, which are parallel worlds observing different cosmological times.
    at a very fundamental level incorporates the notion of a sum over all possible histories into it's most well tested theories.
    That does not mean it is "real" or anything like that. Otherwise you would have to equally assume reality or whatever to all virtual particles in all orders of loops.
    The problem you are having is a disconnect with your largely United States of America based audience.
    Every philosopher who is ahead of his time will have this problem. Nothing to do with US.
    When we in the USA say "many worlds" what we have in mind is more like.... the many many possible M-branes of M theory.
    Well, that is strictly not what Many Worlds means. There is a limit to how far we can allow popular BS to water down terminology. Many Worlds in physics and philosophy both have quite a certain meaning which can be traced back to Everett and David Lewis and others.
    Hfarmer
    I am talking about worlds, not histories, simply because histories include other times, which are parallel worlds observing different cosmological times.


    Each possible history is a separate world.  To see what I mean don't think of just one particle or a simple field interaction.  Think of a large set of particles and fields.  Then consider all the possible histories of interaction that set can have.  Each order of events is in a sense a world.  This is true for cosmology as much as it is for the microscopic universe. 

    That does not mean it is "real" or anything like that. Otherwise you would have to equally assume reality or whatever to all virtual particles in all orders of loops.


    Yet that is just what we end up doing.  Since if we don't include the virtual particles our quantum field theories don't work.  Making them as real as most other things.


    Furthermore a sum over histories is not limited to quantum theory at all.  Consider how hawking handles the issue of information loss in Black Holes. 
    _http://prd.aps.org/abstract/PRD/v72/i8/e084013

    Each metric in his path integral over metrics is a different cosmological "world". Is it not?
    Well, that is strictly not what Many Worlds means. There is a limit to how far we can allow popular BS to water down terminology. Many Worlds in physics and philosophy both have quite a certain meaning which can be traced back to Everett and David Lewis and others
    I was merely explaining to you why the mainly USA and majority non scientist audience would not understand terms like many worlds and/or multiverse the way you do.   What most people in the USA today know of any of this comes from that incomparable genius, Stewie griffin.  If you really want to understand what the audience thinks of these issues you'll watch this.   (Not a knock against anyone reading.  It's just that studying these things are not something most people do.)
    Science advances as much by mistakes as by plans.
    vongehr
    Hontas, if you want to instead write about consistent histories approach and higher order loop corrections, you are welcome to do so, and I will not mind if you call them "real" in whatever definition of "real" you propose, but it is not the same as many worlds. (Why does everything have to be the same - be happy that there is a variety of interesting approaches.)
    No problem with US or Science2.0 audience being non scientists (I do not know the composition of my own column's readers - seems to have scientists).  Scientists from all over the world confuse Many Worlds, MWI, and multiverse.
    Nice to see that you cleared this up.

    However, you of all people should recognize that you are only adding to the confusion when you use the term "Many worlds" when you should know that most physicists and philosophers of physics automatically think in terms of Everett/many worlds interpretation upon hearing that.

    What you are talking about is not Everett / MWI, but something along the lines of David Lewis (who was an opponent of MWI) and Max Tegmark's Mathematical Universe Hypothesis.
    The Elitzur-Vaidmann experiment does NOT give any evidence in favour of MWI or your "Many Worlds", that is a factual error.

    I think you should rename it to "self-consistent worlds hypothesis" and always remind the reader that you are NOT talking about multiverse or many worlds interpretation.

    Also, I think you should drop the "this is obviously correct" tone, it will only drive curious minds away.
    There is nothing wrong with "assuming" that there is indeed a deep realism that makes sure that the clothes you wear today were selected from a deterministic process that has been going on since the beginning of everything.
    There is nothing controversial about this...

    Out of curiosity I would like to know what you mean by "I know better than most that MWI are not the last word" ?

    vongehr
    you are only adding to the confusion when you use the term "Many worlds" when [] most [] think in terms of Everett/many worlds interpretation ... What you are talking about is not Everett / MWI, but something along the lines of David Lewis (who was an opponent of MWI)
    ??? I am talking about Many Worlds in no other sense than that used by Lewis/Everett/MWI/Many others. "Many Worlds" plus "Interpretation (of QM)" = "Many Worlds Interpretation (of QM)"
    and Max Tegmark's Mathematical Universe Hypothesis.
    Tegmark's stuff is philosophically naive. He wants to keep direct realism. It is inconsistent, though popular of course.
    The Elitzur-Vaidmann experiment does NOT give any evidence in favour of MWI or your "Many Worlds", that is a factual error.
    There is no way I could have yet more clearly expressed that EV is not to be taken as evidence for MW without starting to insult readers.
    Also, I think you should drop the "this is obviously correct" tone,
    Tautologies are true, period. Political correctness has no place in logic.
    nothing wrong with "assuming" that there is indeed a deep realism
    Everything is wrong with assuming direct realism or undefined ("deep"???) sorts of "realism"; it is the very assumption that made even Einstein incapable of grasping quantum physics.
    that the clothes you wear today were selected from a deterministic process that has been going on since the beginning of everything.
    Has been dealt with in the article: "Even if you assume non-quantum physics and a universe where all future was already determined by initial conditions, the ultimate description treats all self-consistently possible initial conditions equivalently."
    what you mean by "I know better than most that MWI are not the last word" ?
    Few point toward the measure problem as fatal to most MWI. Even those that do (I mentioned Woit and Smolin) often do so for the wrong reasons (e.g. Popperian nonsense or personal feuds) instead of a fundamental rejection of frequentist probabilities.

    My point is, as long as you refer to these worlds as "many worlds" they will automatically be confused with MWI.
    If you had referred to them as "selfconsistent worlds" or some other unique label you'd avoid this confusion.

    There is obviously a huge difference between these "worlds" and the "worlds" in the Neo-Everettian interpretation (Deutsch et al). The worlds in MWI are "spawned" from "splitting".
    From what you are saying here your worlds do not have any sort of splitting.

    How do you deal with time in your "many worlds" view, why should time flow in these worlds if their main reason for existing is that they are self-consistent?

    By the way, the vast majority of physicists and philosophers of physics reject MWI not based on "Popperian nonsense", but the Born Rule and Preferred basis problems.

    What are your thoughts on solving the Born Rule within QM MWI?

    vongehr
    There is obviously a huge difference between these "worlds" and the "worlds" in the Neo-Everettian interpretation (Deutsch et al). The worlds in MWI are "spawned" from "splitting". From what you are saying here your worlds do not have any sort of splitting.
    Why can I not make use of apparent splitting if I wanted to treat time in a non-deterministic MW model?
    why should time flow in these worlds
    Time does not flow - there is no further time to allow time to flow.
    philosophers of physics reject MWI not based on "Popperian nonsense", but the Born Rule and Preferred basis problems.
    Preferred basis has been dealt with sufficiently by decoherence. The Born Rule is precisely the same point I am making (frequentism, measure problem). I guess we just have different estimates about how many think what.
    What are your thoughts on solving the Born Rule within QM MWI?
    Impossible if they do not give up reality of a global description. Only Many Minds and approaches like Deutsch/Rovelli etc have any chance.
    >Why can I not make use of apparent splitting if I wanted to treat time in a non-deterministic MW model?

    How would a non-deterministic world split? Nothing decides where the split would take place? Why should we expect to see a certain outcome over another in this view?

    >Preferred basis has been dealt with sufficiently by decoherence.

    No. Zurek et al is still very much trying to solve this problem, but so far they have not done so.

    >The Born Rule is precisely the same point I am making (frequentism, measure problem). I guess we just have different estimates about how many think what.

    Yes I realize that it is the same problem, but I was wondering if you had any deeper thoughts on the topic?
    My estimates come from the people in the founations of QM field, I have yet to hear a single physicist reject MWI due to "it's too weird" or anthing vague like that
    All of them reject it due to it's insoluble probability problem and or other technical issues.

    >Impossible if they do not give up reality of a global description. Only Many Minds and approaches like Deutsch/Rovelli etc have any

    *confused* Deustch's approach is nothing like the Many Minds Interpretation at all. It is also 100% deterministic.
    I guess you are referring to his strategy of decision-theoretic (further developed by Wallace) in answer to Born Rule?
    Well tht has failed miserably. Though they obviously continue claiming they have solved it.
    Have you read the litterature on this issue?

    Rovelli isn't even talking about many worlds so why you bring him into this, I don't know.

    vongehr
    How would a non-deterministic world split? ..... Deustch's approach ... is also 100% deterministic.
    How, without branching, is there any choice that needs even the distinction between determinism and non-determinism? (MW is not quantum physics; QM unitarity and its deterministic evolution of wavefunctions are thus not the issue.)
    Deustch's approach is nothing like the Many Minds Interpretation at all. ... Rovelli isn't even talking about many worlds
    Whatever names they give it.

    The rest - miserable failure, no preferred basis from decoherence - you are entitled to your opinion.
    How, without branching, is there any choice that needs even the distinction between determinism and non-determinism? (MW is not quantum physics; QM unitarity and its deterministic evolution of wavefunctions are thus not the issue.)

    Well what I am trying to understand is how things would "change" in your picture, or if you are going for a straight out Julian Barbour like view where only static "time capsules" exist?
    Even if that were the case, where is the randomness coming in? What is random in your self-consistent worlds (SCW) ?

    Whatever names they give it.

    I am afraid that answers nothing.
    First, Deutsch's view and Rovelli's view is VERY different, but more importantly Deutsch's view claim that there is no definite number of observers, does that make sense to you?
    They are trying to use decision-theory to get the Born Rule with hidden assumptions, so why you have faith in that programme Ido not know.

    vongehr
    a straight out Julian Barbour like view where only static "time capsules" exist?
    I get a little tired repeating myself. I do not care about what "really actually" or perhaps "only" "exists". Such nonsense sells well but has no chance of making any progress.
    First, Deutsch's view and Rovelli's view is VERY different,
    Both refuse simplistic frequentism and realism more than almost all competitors.
    Deutsch's view claim that there is no definite number of observers, does that make sense to you?
    Number and phase are conjugate variables (like x and p), so number-uncertainty is not news, though it was always extremely strange to anybody trying to grasp it in a directly real worldview.
    get the Born Rule with hidden assumptions, so why you have faith in that programme Ido not know.
    "Hidden assumptions"??? I do not have faith in exactly that program. Bousso's causal patch or apparent horizon, Rovelli's observer observing, Deutsch's deciding agent, many minds in general - these all focus away from the "real stage out there" and onto the observer. That is where the foundation of physics obviously is. No physics can possibly be inconsistent with conscious phenomena. Nobody could observe such physics.
    MikeCrow
    I can follow:
    • Analogs of Earth in an infinite spacial Universe.
    • That there are all combination's of me due to the MWI of QM(maybe this is in error?).
    • The possibility of any number of other Universes, which while I hadn't considered it, they too could have any number of Earth Analogs.

    But this:
    I will not waste time trying to prove that other worlds are actually absolutely actualized rather than “merely possible”.
    Other than as part of MWI of QM, is new to me.
    This:
    ??? I am talking about Many Worlds in no other sense than that used by Lewis/Everett/MWI/Many others. "Many Worlds" plus "Interpretation (of QM)" = "Many Worlds Interpretation (of QM)"
    seems at odds with:
    Many Worlds is not even quantum physics! Quantum physics is the fact that different worlds are entangled, which for example allows that the “parallel existence” of other possible worlds
    I'm not a believer of fate, nor that I'm destine to wear a blue shirt tomorrow instead of a black one.
    I guess the question I have is why are they actualized, and not just possible?

    I'm not a believer of fate, nor that I'm destine to wear a blue shirt tomorrow instead of a black one.
    I guess the question I have is why are they actualized, and not just possible?

    Never is a long time.
    vongehr
    But this: ... is new to me.
    Reminds me of once saying something like this in a doubting tone to a mathematics professor. She abruptly changed her mood, looked at me in disgust and shot back: "Well guess what, you learn something new here!"
    Hi, interesting post thanks. I wonder if the Aristotelian distinction between actual and potential as well as the Scholastics' differentiation between real being and ideal being may be useful? (See
    here if interested)

    For example, “Real being” is anything that has, or can have, existence independent of our brains and our actual knowledge of it. Ideal being is any thing in so far as it is known, an intellectual abstraction if you want.

    Real being can in turn be subdivided into sub categories for example potential being and actual being.

    For example, this world is now actualized, it has real being or has real existence in this very moment and thus has actual being. However, this world is a composite of actual and potential being (actual and potential being are two aspects of real being) and thus have the potential to be many different worlds in the future and that depends on how they are actualized.

    So, many worlds would thus be analogous to potential being and both have real being, in other words they have existence independent of our brains and our actual knowledge of it.

    vongehr
    Aristotelian distinction between actual and potential as well as the Scholastics' differentiation
    I am all for pondering better terminology, but since we already have special relativistic temporal terminology that has no traditional match, and moreover we need to express classically unknown ways of "existence" (inside quantum superpositions say), thus requiring novel modal terminology, we better start from modern science.
    “Real being” is anything that has, or can have, existence independent of our brains and our actual knowledge of it.
    You are free to define "real" however you desire, but if you want to make progress, you need to make distinctions that are scientifically verifiable. If "brains" means "observations" for example, this may all become differences that make no difference. You may also encounter that your "real" all of a sudden includes what you did not want to include when starting out while excluding what everybody else feels is the most real (the universe say). I have given up on "real" since it serves nothing but pointless discussions. What if we agree on XYZ being "real"? It explains the Born Rule or the redness of red?
    Must be something deep in the maths that I don't understand here. I thought the Born rule could be derived exactly the same way as the preferred basis - as a statistical result arising out of an incomplete account of the observer's wavefunction - its entanglements with the entire universe.
    vongehr
    The problem is the circularity in pulling a probability interpretation from a statistical (!) result. Basically, you can always just fold your arms and ask "But why is this the probability?" (and this is basically what is done - very similar to consciousness etc., i.e. one can never satisfy like this). That is why David Deutsch's basic idea is miles above anybody else's, regardless of whether his trying to work it mathematically got stuck. It is the kind of idea that must work out somehow because nothing else would ever be accepted as a satisfying answer. A satisfying answer to time or probability can never include these concepts. They must be totally absent, yet emerge as naive interpretations to the phenomenal mind.
    I meant statistical as in "statistical mechanics" where thermodynamics (and all the arrow of time stuff) emerges as a naive interpretation of not knowing the precise microstate. I thought this could be done in QM.
    vongehr
    Yes, I know you meant that. So how is there statistics without any notion of probability (like for example that all microstates are equally probable)?
    This is what I don't understand about what you said. Many worlds gets rid of random events and you say it works for decoherence. The account of decoherence that I have heard of considers it to be deterministic if you take into account entanglement with the environment - which is MW. I was merely asking why the same thing can't be done with the Born rule.
    Ok, I agree that we should stick with empirical data. The problem (as I see it anyway) is with terminology and how to coherently and consistently describe what we observe.

    The term "existence" appears to imply the notion of actuality. If something exists, it is actual. Everything that is actual is thus real, but not everything that is real is actual ( I am just going with the Scholastic distinction here).

    Take the example of an electron prepared in the initial state with Sz=+½.
    As far as I understand the electron will have a determinate Sz value (+½) whenever Sz is measured if left undisturbed.
    Thus, it is an electron in an actual state and exists with Sz=+½.

    However, an electron prepared in the initial state with Sz=+½ will have an indeterminate Sx value (±½) before measurement. This is what you may call a superposition. But here is where I think the distinction between actual and potential is useful.

    One can say that the exists and is actually Sz=+½ AND Sx=+½ AND Sx=-½ at the same moment. But this appears to violate the law of non-contradiction (LNC). One can of course claim that quantum physics is just weird so this may not apply. But I think we don't have to abandon the LNC.

    Instead one can say that an electron is actually Sz=+½ and is potentially Sx=+½ OR Sx=-½. Thus, Sx=+½ and Sx=-½ do not have existence at the same moment, they merely have potential being but it is still real (again, the Scholastic distinction).

    So when you are saying "unknown ways of "existence"", existence can be better described as "being". Superpositions (Sx=+½ OR Sx=-½) have potential being and thus no existence (but have real being) while an an electron electron Sz=+½ is actually existing as well as having real being.

    Of course you may say that we need things that are scientifically verifiable and I agree. But the Aristotelian distinctions are tautological in the same way your view of "Many Worlds" are tautological. Potential being is just analogous to your "Many Worlds".

    You ask "What if we agree on XYZ being "real"? It explains the Born Rule or the redness of red?"
    Here again I think the distinction between ideal being and real being, while tautological, may be useful. XYZ or the Born Rule or redness are just intellectual abstractions and thus have ideal being. The best one can say is that intellectual abstractions (ideal being) have their foundation in the actually existing and potentially existing (real being) things we are able to sense.

    Interesting stuff indeed. I am not a physicist (or a professional philosopher for that matter), but I have a few thoughts and questions:

    1. I have spoken with a few physicists on this topic (after listening to or reading Greene, Tegmark and others a little bit), and most of those who are remotely comfortable with the notion of a multiverse seem to try very hard to NOT confuse it with modal realism. Now, as is common of scientists in my opinion, their translations of mathematical theories into natural languages often carry misleading grammars, so to speak (even when they are translating for more "sophisticated" lay audiences), which might explain why philosophers might find confusions here and there. But I sense that their instinct for professional survival (or dominance, or integrity) is very much alive and they cringe at the idea of being accused of doing metaphysics (which is why some reflexively retreat either into accusations that their listeners just don't understand the mathematics, or into an insistence on the "falsifiability" barrier--however stretched to the "conceivably-possible experiment" and such).

    2. If modal realism is true, it seems to me to mean that every possible world is physically isolated from every other and completely determined. So far, I have seen only two (perhaps only nominally distinct) interpretations of quantum physics in this context:
    a. Either the observed and incorrigible indeterminacy of quantum physics is a reflection of what people like Daniel Dennett call our epistemic horizon;
    b. Or (inclusive) it is an observation of "interference" or "entanglement" between different possible worlds.
    Questions:
    - Am I misstating anything? If not, how does proposition 2(b) not contradict proposition 2? [Is interference something relevantly analogical to the sharing of counterparts (or similarity) across separate possible worlds (especially in the same neighborhood)?] More: are there other interpretations (of the ontological status) of quantum physics from the perspective of modal realism?

    vongehr
    If modal realism is true, it seems to me to mean that every possible world is physically isolated from every other and completely determined.
    I am not seeing this, but I am not going to say it is wrong, since with a specific mixture of definitions for "physical", "determined" (i.e. classical or in the unitary quantum sense), and "world", you could possibly make it true.
    Okay. I assumed we were using David Lewis' definition of modal realism and attendant terms, except that my statement about determinism is meant to follow perhaps more straightforwardly from the logic of counterfactuals.

    In any case, I think that:
    - a possible world is basically a set of facts ("for an observer," if you wish to add); and, if I am applying the logic of counterfactuals correctly, then every PW is more specifically a unique complete set of facts, since each PW distinguishes itself from every other simply by having different facts (which is what it means to say that PWs are separated by logical space, which entails spatiotemporal isolation); so every PW corresponds to a definite and complete ideal description, while incomplete descriptions simply describe what several PWs share (parts or counterparts);
    - if any PW exists through time, then it must express and preserve its unique description (its identity) through time; incomplete descriptions may include alternative temporal sequences (e.g., PWs where you reply to this comment versus PWs where you do not); but to each PW that exists through time (including this one), there must correspond a definite temporal sequence at every point--"pre-ordained" as it were. And that is all I mean by determinism.

    Okay. I assumed we were using David Lewis' definition of modal realism and attendant terms, except that my statement about determinism is meant to follow perhaps more straightforwardly from the logic of counterfactuals.

    In any case, I think that:
    - a possible world is basically a set of facts ("for an observer," if you wish to add); and, if I am applying the logic of counterfactuals correctly, then every PW is more specifically a unique complete set of facts, since each PW distinguishes itself from every other simply by having different facts (which is what it means to say that PWs are separated by logical space, which entails spatiotemporal isolation); so every PW corresponds to a definite and complete ideal description, while incomplete descriptions simply describe what several PWs share (parts or counterparts);
    - if any PW exists through time, then it must express and preserve its unique description (its identity) through time; incomplete descriptions may include alternative temporal sequences (e.g., PWs where you reply to this comment versus PWs where you do not); but to each PW that exists through time (including this one), there must correspond a definite temporal sequence at every point--"pre-ordained" as it were. And that is all I mean by determinism.